R
I have a query to the experts and participants of this forum about the TMR concept.
We have a PLC of brand X whose hardware is configured as a TMR. There are three processors: P1, P2 & P3. The philosophy of process shutdown is standard 2oo3. Now, if P1 goes offline because of some internal diagnostic error or communication fault or any other reason which is ONLY P1 specific, P2 and P3 can still work in unison and process is unaffected. BUT if P2 goes offline too because of some internal diagnostic error or communication fault or any other reason which is ONLY P2 specific then the whole process is tripped as both P1 & P2 are now offline.
My query starts from this point. If P3 is healthy, why can't the process be allowed to continue? The abnormal condition that arose wasn't process specific. It was system specific. It was PLC specific. P3 still claims to be working without any problem. It would be fine to trip the process due to a process specific 2oo3 mismatch. But is it not wrong to trip the process for a PLC system specific fault? What will be the consequences of a system that was designed to keep the process running with only P3 in such a scenario? Will it be against some standards in Automation industry if we implement a system that will continue to run even if P1 and P2 goes down while making sure that process specific abnormalities are not ignored.
Thank you.
Regards,
Ritika
We have a PLC of brand X whose hardware is configured as a TMR. There are three processors: P1, P2 & P3. The philosophy of process shutdown is standard 2oo3. Now, if P1 goes offline because of some internal diagnostic error or communication fault or any other reason which is ONLY P1 specific, P2 and P3 can still work in unison and process is unaffected. BUT if P2 goes offline too because of some internal diagnostic error or communication fault or any other reason which is ONLY P2 specific then the whole process is tripped as both P1 & P2 are now offline.
My query starts from this point. If P3 is healthy, why can't the process be allowed to continue? The abnormal condition that arose wasn't process specific. It was system specific. It was PLC specific. P3 still claims to be working without any problem. It would be fine to trip the process due to a process specific 2oo3 mismatch. But is it not wrong to trip the process for a PLC system specific fault? What will be the consequences of a system that was designed to keep the process running with only P3 in such a scenario? Will it be against some standards in Automation industry if we implement a system that will continue to run even if P1 and P2 goes down while making sure that process specific abnormalities are not ignored.
Thank you.
Regards,
Ritika
